I'm branching the discussion off not because it isn't pertinent to the discussion in that thread, but because the official term for that reading has lapsed, and I think that this discussion is likely to attract more notice if it's not attached to the book discussion.
With this post I intend to summarize my understanding and reactions to the RFRA as it's presented here (thanks go out to Rose for providing the link and pointing me to the topic in the first place). Since what we're shooting for here is a discussion of the actual aims, terms and methods of the RFRA, you may want to read through the act itself before jumping in on discussion.
The sensible place to start is 2000bb (Congressional findings and declaration of purposes). On the whole I agree with subsection (a)(2)-- that "laws 'neutral' toward religion may burden religious exercise as surely as laws intended to interfere with religious exercise." I'm not so certain about the clause that precedes it -- "the framers of the Constitution, recognizing free exercise of religion as an unalienable right, secured its protection in the First Amendment to the Constitution" -- and I'm really going to need to familiarize myself with some of the ins and outs of First Amendment interpretation before I feel confident in saying whether or not (a)(1) rings true.
What I will say is that I don't think the aim of the RFRA is particularly practicable, for reasons that I outlined in the previous thread. To summarize, it seems unlikely to me that there is any way to legislate with an eye towards every religious tradition, and even if it were theoretically possible to do so, the actual process would be require so many consideration and involve so many complications as to make it an extraordinarily cumbersome burden on the legislative and judicial branches of government. The Snowbowl case illustrates the ways in which a secular government informed by one set of traditions will almost imperceptibly legislate towards a burden on religious traditions from a different set of traditions, and ultimately I think there may be no way to mediate between certain differences in background. I indentified the underlying factor in the Snowbowl case as a difference in culturally-determined notions regarding use and ownership of the land -- the Native American plaintiffs practiced a religion that developed in a cultural context which presumed that all land use was a kind of usufruct, while modern U.S. law is predicated on a European cultural background providing a basis for personal ownership of the land. Even if that identification is wide of center or a misinterpretation, it ought, at least, to illustrate why it's impractical to suppose that a governmental body really could legislate so not to place potentially disuasive burdens on all of the religious traditions it effects.
Getting back to the Congressional Findings, (a)(4) seems crucial to the case being built by RFRA, and to that end it's probably best to take a closer look at "Employment Division v. Smith". The RFRA's contention is that the Supreme Court, in deciding on that case, "virtually eliminated the requirement that the government justify burdens on religious exercise imposed by laws neutral toward religion," and to that end the validity of the RFRA ought to depend on our assessment of whether or not that elimination actually took place. Which itself depends on the question of whether or not there was anything to eliminate in the first place, a topic I'm not going to be able to address until I get back to the topic of First Amendment interpretation. But, assuming for the sake of argument that such a requirement did serve prior to 1990, did "Employment Division v. Smith" eliminate it?
Given a summary reading of Scalia's opinion on that case, I'd say his rationale is similar to the reasoning I gave above. Providing for exceptions, that is, actual departures from current law, would so complicate the implementation of just about every conceivable law as to make legal process altogether unworkable. But that doesn't seem to me the point of controversy that gave rise to RFRA. The section of interest might be IIA. in which the Supreme Court considers the question of whether the Oregon laws against the free use of controlled substance conflicts with the Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment by prohibiting the religious use of peyote.
IIA makes explicit a distinction that I raised in other threads, namely that between religious expression and religious practice. Religious expression (eg. the profession of belief or subscription to a particular doctrine) is clearly protected by a host of precedents, but to protect expression without also protecting practice leaves religion itself in a tenuous position. The respondents' right to profess affiliation with the Native American Church (which is, so far as I can tell, itself a concession to the demands of European conceptions of religious expression) is upheld, but it's upheld in the same sense that the right of a Libertarian to espouse the legalization of marijuana is upheld. IIA goes on to interpret unconstitutional "prohibition of religious exercise" as any restriction on behavior that is made prejudicial to religious expression -- that is, any law which prohibits an act specifically because it is involved in a religious ceremony, when the same act would be protected otherwise.
(Incidentally, a lot of what's written in IIA of the opinion seems to echo what I argued in a few of the "Religious Expression and the American Constitution" threads -- to wit, that the courts appear to be treating religious expression as though it were assimilable to generally recognized forms of free speech. For example: "It is no more necessary to regard the collection of a general tax, for example, as 'prohibiting the free exercise [of religion]' by those citizens who believe support of organized government to be sinful, than it is to regard the same tax as 'abridging the freedom . . . of the press' of those publishing companies that must pay the tax as a condition of staying in business." The comparison seems pretty explicit. I would argue that treating religious expression as though it were assimilable to free speech is a pretty grave understanding of the purpose and function of religion, and is likely to give rise to a confusion that will ultimately render conclusions made in regard to the legality of religious practice fairly disparate from any sort of realistic grasp of what is necessary for religious exercise.)
Getting back to the question of whether or not the opinion eliminates the requirement that laws not place an excessive burden on religious practice, I'd have to say that the effect of the opinion probably would be to dismiss the validity of argument to the end that even "neutral" laws should avoid such a burden. Whether or not that requirement actually existed prior to 1990 is a question I'd need to research more before I came to any decision. Scalia's reference to Justice Frankfurter in Minersville School Dist. Bd. of Ed. v. Gobitis clearly indicates that there is at least one vein of practice contradicting the assertion that such a requirement had broad undivided support, but I'm ignorant as to whether or not Justice Frankfurter's view on the matter is indicative of boradly consistent practice.
There is, I think, some unintentional irony in the text quoted from Reynolds v. United States, to wit: "Can a man excuse his practices to the contrary because of his religious belief? To permit this would be to make the professed doctrines of religious belief superior to the law of the land, and in effect to permit every citizen to become a law unto himself." I think it entirely likely that most religious believers would affirm that the content of religious belief is, indeed, superior to any form of secular law, and it seems entirely likely to me that the attitude which would hold that religious principles should be subservient to governance is one that grew up in the specific melieu of medieval Christian society -- "render unto Caeser what is his" and all that. My point isn't that anyone in particular should hold the converse view, but rather that it's a commonplace most religious believers would probably affirm that religions embody what is, for the believer, an expression of ultimate concern. It's probably unreasonble for the Court to expect religious believers to agree on that point, and the technical concerns of the second clause -- that making across the board exceptions would "in effect permit every citizen to become superior to the law of the land" -- would probably make for a more broadly persuasive argument.
Getting back to the RFRA, I realize that I haven't even gotten past the Congressional Findings in the first section, but this post is running long, so maybe it's best if I summarize what I've gleaned so far and how I interpret it.
It looks to me as though the RFRA is aimed at addressing valid concerns about the relationship between religion and law as it's practiced in the United States, but the claims made in order to substantiate its proposed solutions to those problems are iffy, to say the least. The basic concern, as I see it, is that effect of even laws that have no direct bearing on religion may have the indirect effect of making it impossible to square certain religious practices with legal conduct. The Snowbowl case is a more subtle instance than Employment Division v. Smith, but the effect, I think, is the same. In either case, religious practice is disrupted, and if disruptions of that kind continue to proliferate, it seems entirely likely that the religious practices in question will be pushed so far to the fringes that they'll virtually cease to exist. That does not, to my mind, qualify as prohibiting religion, but to the degree that the practice of a person's chose religious tradition is part of their exercise of the pursuit of happiness, it does raise a concern.
The fact that both cases concern Native American religious traditions is telling. These are traditions that arise from a distinct historical and cultural background. That the practices of those traditions would come into conflict with the legal strictures of a government premised on values and concepts from another background strikes me as little short of inevitable. To whatever degree a) cultural identity is important to these individuals, and b) their religious traditions inform that cultural identity, I'd say these people are at a distinct disadvantage in pursuing their individual happiness.
Unfortunately, I don't think there's much that can be done about that, at least, not without engaging in some serious restructuring of the way this country operates. Ultimately, I think that any given judicial institution must pick and choose which cultural and religious traditions it will accomodate, if any at all. It's unfortunate that American history has progressed so as to make immanent the displacement of a religious tradition that existed here prior to the advent of European colonization, and more unfortunate that, unlike the traditions belonging to immigrant stock, Native American religion and culture has nowhere to which it may retreat. But RFRA is barking up the wrong tree if it thinks it can mediate exceptions every time a religious tradition conflicts with an existing law, and if the act continues to persue that methodology, the result will be another heavy burden on American jurisprudence, one that it can ill afford.
